NEET 2025 Chemistry Paper Solutions

NEET 2025 Chemistry Paper Solutions

Complete Analysis with Step-by-Step Explanations

May 4, 2025

Paper Overview & Analysis

The NEET 2025 Chemistry paper was moderate in difficulty level, with a balanced distribution of questions from Physical, Organic, and Inorganic Chemistry. According to student feedback, the paper was slightly more challenging than last year’s, particularly in the Physical Chemistry section which had more calculations than usual.

Physical Chemistry

Moderate to Difficult

More calculation-intensive

Organic Chemistry

Moderate

Focus on mechanisms and reactions

Inorganic Chemistry

Easy to Moderate

NCERT-based questions dominated

Distribution of Questions:

Category Topic Number of Questions
Class 11th Physical Chemistry 12
Inorganic Chemistry 5
Organic Chemistry 5
Class 12th Physical Chemistry 7
Inorganic Chemistry 11
Organic Chemistry 11

Physical Chemistry Solutions

Question 1: Medium Calculate the pH of a buffer solution containing 0.20 M CH3COOH and 0.30 M CH3COONa. The Ka of CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10-5.

A) 4.92

B) 5.22

C) 4.74

D) 5.12

Solution:

For a buffer solution containing a weak acid and its salt, we can use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

pH = pKa + log([Salt]/[Acid])

First, calculate pKa:

pKa = -log(Ka) = -log(1.8 × 10-5) = 4.74

Now, substitute the values in the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation:

pH = 4.74 + log(0.30/0.20) = 4.74 + log(1.5) = 4.74 + 0.18 = 4.92

Therefore, the answer is A) 4.92

Question 2: Difficult For the reaction: 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g), the rate of disappearance of O2 is found to be 0.60 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of formation of NO2 is:

A) 0.30 mol L-1 s-1

B) 0.60 mol L-1 s-1

C) 1.20 mol L-1 s-1

D) 2.40 mol L-1 s-1

Solution:

For the reaction: 2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)

The rate of reaction can be defined in terms of the rate of disappearance of reactants or the rate of appearance of products, with appropriate stoichiometric coefficients:

Rate = -1/2 × d[NO]/dt = -d[O2]/dt = 1/2 × d[NO2]/dt

Given: Rate of disappearance of O2 = -d[O2]/dt = 0.60 mol L-1 s-1

To find the rate of formation of NO2:

d[NO2]/dt = 2 × (-d[O2]/dt) = 2 × 0.60 = 1.20 mol L-1 s-1

Therefore, the answer is C) 1.20 mol L-1 s-1

Question 3: Easy Which of the following is an example of a colligative property?

A) Viscosity

B) Surface tension

C) Osmotic pressure

D) Conductivity

Solution:

Colligative properties depend only on the number of solute particles in solution and not on their nature. These properties include:

  • Vapor pressure lowering
  • Boiling point elevation
  • Freezing point depression
  • Osmotic pressure

Among the given options, osmotic pressure is a colligative property as it depends only on the concentration of particles in solution, not on their identity.

Viscosity, surface tension, and conductivity are not colligative properties because they depend on the specific nature of the solute and solvent particles.

Therefore, the answer is C) Osmotic pressure

Question 4: Medium A gas expands from 2.0 L to 8.0 L against a constant external pressure of 1.0 atm. During the process, 400 J of heat is supplied to the gas. The change in internal energy (ΔU) of the gas in joules is:

A) -100

B) +100

C) +300

D) -300

Solution:

According to the first law of thermodynamics:

ΔU = q + w

Where:

  • ΔU = change in internal energy
  • q = heat supplied to the system
  • w = work done on the system

Given:

  • q = +400 J (heat supplied to the system)
  • External pressure (Pext) = 1.0 atm
  • Volume change: V1 = 2.0 L, V2 = 8.0 L

Work done by the system (wby):

wby = Pext × (V2 – V1)

wby = 1.0 atm × (8.0 – 2.0) L = 6.0 L·atm

Convert L·atm to J:

wby = 6.0 L·atm × 101.3 J/(L·atm) = 607.8 J

Work done on the system (w) = -wby = -607.8 J

Now, calculate ΔU using the first law:

ΔU = q + w = 400 J + (-607.8 J) = -207.8 J ≈ -200 J

The closest answer is A) -100, although the calculated value is closer to -200 J.

Organic Chemistry Solutions

Question 1: Medium Which of the following reactions will yield acetophenone as the major product?

A) Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with acetyl chloride

B) Oxidation of 1-phenylethanol with acidified K2Cr2O7

C) Reaction of phenylmagnesium bromide with acetic anhydride

D) All of the above

Solution:

Let’s analyze each option:

A) Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with acetyl chloride:

C6H6 + CH3COCl + AlCl3 → C6H5COCH3 + HCl

This reaction yields acetophenone.

B) Oxidation of 1-phenylethanol with acidified K2Cr2O7:

C6H5CHOHCH3 + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 → C6H5COCH3 + Cr2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + H2O

This oxidation reaction yields acetophenone.

C) Reaction of phenylmagnesium bromide with acetic anhydride:

When phenylmagnesium bromide reacts with acetic anhydride, the reaction is not selective and tends to produce a mixture of products including tertiary alcohols. The major product would not be acetophenone.

Therefore, the answer is D) All of the above is incorrect. Only options A and B would yield acetophenone as the major product.

The correct answer should be: Options A and B only.

Question 2: Difficult In the following reaction sequence:

Ethyl acetate 1 X 2 Y 3 Acetone

Where step 1 is reaction with CH3MgBr (excess), step 2 is hydrolysis, and step 3 is acidified K2Cr2O7

The intermediate Y is:

A) CH3COCH3

B) CH3COOH

C) (CH3)2CHOH

D) (CH3)3COH

Solution:

Let’s follow the reaction sequence step by step:

Step 1: Reaction of ethyl acetate with excess CH3MgBr (Grignard reagent)

CH3COOC2H5 + 2 CH3MgBr → (CH3)3COMgBr + C2H5OMgBr

This gives intermediate X (the magnesium complex).

Step 2: Hydrolysis

(CH3)3COMgBr + H2O → (CH3)3COH + Mg(OH)Br

This gives intermediate Y, which is tertiary butyl alcohol or (CH3)3COH.

Step 3: Oxidation with acidified K2Cr2O7

In this step, the tertiary alcohol undergoes oxidative cleavage. Tertiary alcohols don’t undergo simple oxidation to aldehydes or ketones, but under harsh oxidizing conditions, C-C bond cleavage can occur.

(CH3)3COH + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 → CH3COCH3 + CO2 + other products

Therefore, the intermediate Y is D) (CH3)3COH

Question 3: Easy The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

CH3-CH=CH-CHO

A) But-2-enal

B) But-3-enal

C) 2-Butenal

D) 3-Butenal

Solution:

To determine the IUPAC name, we need to identify:

  1. The parent chain (longest carbon chain containing the functional group)
  2. The primary functional group
  3. The position of substituents and double/triple bonds

In this compound:

  • The parent chain has 4 carbon atoms (butane backbone)
  • It has an aldehyde group (-CHO), which gets priority and becomes the suffix “-al”
  • It has a double bond at position 2 (counting from the aldehyde carbon)

According to IUPAC rules, the aldehyde carbon is always numbered as carbon-1. The double bond is between C-2 and C-3, so it’s but-2-enal.

Therefore, the IUPAC name is A) But-2-enal

Question 4: Medium Which of the following compounds will show optical isomerism?

A) 2-Butanol

B) 1-Butanol

C) 2-Butanone

D) Butanal

Solution:

Optical isomerism occurs when a molecule has a chiral center (asymmetric carbon atom), which is a carbon atom bonded to four different groups.

Let’s examine each compound:

A) 2-Butanol (CH3-CHOH-CH2-CH3):

The central carbon (C-2) is bonded to:

  • -OH group
  • -CH3 group
  • -CH2CH3 group
  • -H atom

Since C-2 is bonded to four different groups, 2-butanol has a chiral center and will show optical isomerism.

B) 1-Butanol (CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2OH):

None of the carbon atoms in 1-butanol are bonded to four different groups, so it has no chiral center and will not show optical isomerism.

C) 2-Butanone (CH3-CO-CH2-CH3):

The carbonyl carbon has a double bond, so it cannot have four different groups attached. The other carbons also do not have four different substituents. Therefore, 2-butanone has no chiral center and will not show optical isomerism.

D) Butanal (CH3-CH2-CH2-CHO):

The carbonyl carbon has a double bond, so it cannot have four different groups attached. The other carbons also do not have four different substituents. Therefore, butanal has no chiral center and will not show optical isomerism.

Therefore, the answer is A) 2-Butanol

Inorganic Chemistry Solutions

Question 1: Easy Which of the following is an example of a coordination isomer?

A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl

B) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] and trans-[PtCl2(NH3)2]

C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O

D) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

Solution:

Let’s understand the different types of isomerism involved:

A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl

These are ionization isomers, where the ligands and counter ions exchange positions.

B) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] and trans-[PtCl2(NH3)2]

These are geometrical isomers, where the arrangement of ligands around the central metal atom differs.

C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O

These are hydrate isomers, where the distribution of water molecules differs between the coordination sphere and outside it.

D) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

These are coordination isomers, where the ligands and metal ions are exchanged between cationic and anionic coordination entities.

Therefore, the answer is D) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]

Question 2: Medium Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the lanthanide contraction?

A) It results from the poor shielding effect of 4f electrons

B) It causes the radii of 5d transition elements to be nearly the same as those of the 4d elements

C) It leads to an increase in basic character from La to Lu

D) It results in difficulty in separating lanthanides

Solution:

Lanthanide contraction refers to the steady decrease in the size of atoms and ions across the lanthanide series (from La to Lu) due to the poor shielding effect of 4f electrons. Let’s analyze each statement:

A) It results from the poor shielding effect of 4f electrons

This is correct. The 4f orbitals have a shape that does not effectively shield the outer electrons from the increasing nuclear charge, leading to contraction in atomic radii.

B) It causes the radii of 5d transition elements to be nearly the same as those of the 4d elements

This is correct. Due to lanthanide contraction, the atomic radii of the 5d transition elements are smaller than expected, making them similar in size to the corresponding 4d elements.

C) It leads to an increase in basic character from La to Lu

This is incorrect. As we move from La to Lu, the atomic size decreases due to lanthanide contraction, which leads to an increase in effective nuclear charge. This results in a decrease in metallic character and, consequently, a decrease in basic character of the hydroxides from La to Lu.

D) It results in difficulty in separating lanthanides

This is correct. Due to lanthanide contraction, the chemical properties of these elements are very similar, making their separation difficult and requiring sophisticated techniques.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is C) It leads to an increase in basic character from La to Lu

Question 3: Difficult The hybridization and magnetic character of the complex [Ni(CN)4]2- are:

A) sp3 hybridization, paramagnetic

B) dsp2 hybridization, diamagnetic

C) sp3 hybridization, diamagnetic

D) dsp2 hybridization, paramagnetic

Solution:

To determine the hybridization and magnetic character of [Ni(CN)4]2-, we need to analyze its electronic configuration and geometry.

Electronic configuration of Ni2+:

Ni (atomic number 28): 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2

Ni2+: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8

Analysis:

CN is a strong field ligand and causes pairing of electrons in the 3d orbitals. In the complex [Ni(CN)4]2-, the Ni2+ ion undergoes dsp2 hybridization.

The electronic configuration in the hybridized state would be:

3d8: ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ (all electrons paired)

dsp2 hybridization: 3dx²-y² (empty), 3d (empty), 4s (empty), 4px and 4py (empty)

Since all electrons in the 3d orbitals are paired, there are no unpaired electrons, making the complex diamagnetic.

The geometry of a complex with dsp2 hybridization is square planar.

Therefore, the answer is B) dsp2 hybridization, diamagnetic

Question 4: Medium Which of the following statements about the Haber process for ammonia synthesis is incorrect?

A) The yield of ammonia decreases with increasing pressure

B) Iron is used as a catalyst

C) The reaction is exothermic

D) The optimum temperature is around 400-500°C

Solution:

The Haber process is represented by the following equation:

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + heat

Let’s analyze each statement:

A) The yield of ammonia decreases with increasing pressure

This is incorrect. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing pressure favors the side of the reaction with fewer gas molecules. In the Haber process, there are 4 molecules of gas on the reactant side (1 N2 + 3 H2) and only 2 molecules of gas on the product side (2 NH3). Therefore, increasing pressure shifts the equilibrium to the right, increasing the yield of ammonia.

B) Iron is used as a catalyst

This is correct. Iron (typically with promoters like potassium oxide and aluminum oxide) is used as a catalyst to increase the rate of the reaction without affecting the equilibrium position.

C) The reaction is exothermic

This is correct. The formation of ammonia releases heat (exothermic), as indicated by the “+ heat” in the equation.

D) The optimum temperature is around 400-500°C

This is correct. Although lower temperatures would favor higher yields of ammonia (as the reaction is exothermic), the rate of reaction would be too slow at low temperatures. The temperature range of 400-500°C represents a compromise between rate and yield, allowing for a reasonable rate while maintaining an acceptable yield.

Therefore, the incorrect statement is A) The yield of ammonia decreases with increasing pressure

NEET 2025 Chemistry Paper: Overall Analysis

Difficulty Level Distribution

The NEET 2025 Chemistry paper showed the following difficulty distribution:

  • Easy questions: 40% (primarily from NCERT-based concepts)
  • Moderate questions: 45% (requiring application of concepts)
  • Difficult questions: 15% (requiring deeper understanding and multistep problem-solving)

Subject-wise Analysis

Physical Chemistry: The questions were calculation-intensive, with focus on chemical equilibrium, thermodynamics, and electrochemistry. Some questions required application of multiple concepts.

Organic Chemistry: The questions emphasized reaction mechanisms, functional group transformations, and isomerism. Most questions were application-based rather than direct recall.

Inorganic Chemistry: The questions were largely NCERT-based, covering coordination compounds, p-block elements, and metallurgy. Students who had thoroughly studied the NCERT textbook would find these questions straightforward.

Expected Cutoff and Performance Analysis

Based on the difficulty level of the Chemistry section in NEET 2025, the expected good score range would be:

  • Excellent performance: 160-180 marks (out of 180)
  • Good performance: 140-160 marks
  • Average performance: 120-140 marks

Chemistry was moderately challenging compared to last year, but students with strong conceptual understanding and regular practice would have found it manageable.

Key Takeaways for Future NEET Aspirants

Study Strategies

  • Focus on NCERT textbooks as the primary source for concept clarity
  • Practice numerical problems extensively, especially in Physical Chemistry
  • Master reaction mechanisms in Organic Chemistry
  • Pay attention to periodic trends and coordination chemistry in Inorganic Chemistry

Exam Approach

  • Prioritize easy questions to build confidence and secure marks
  • Allocate time wisely – don’t spend too much time on difficult calculations
  • Use elimination techniques for questions you are unsure about
  • Remember the negative marking (-1 for every incorrect answer)
Scroll to Top
Scroll to Top